I think it's grammatically correct to use a singular noun after "there isn't any ...", isn't it?
(e.g. There isn't any chair in this palace.)
I would like to know how it is grammatically justified.
Please provide me with a good reference if possible.
I'd add to bhai's:
An alternative for "There aren't any chairs in this palace" is "There are no chairs in this palace".
Sometimes, if you are talking about only one item, you might see the construction you wrote:
A: Go into the room and sit on the chair. (One chair is referenced)
B: (Goes into room) There isn't any chair in this room!
C: Place Nut B on Bolt A
D: There isn't a/any Nut B here. / There's no Nut B here.
*** NOT A TEACHER ***
TheParser (whose responses are always a pleasure to read ), dreamed up an excellent example last November. For me, his post is a reference (I bookmarked that thread), so I would like to share it with you:
Originally Posted by TheParser;
For better understanding Parser's example, I also suggest that you read the whole thread I hope you find this useful.