Yeah. I heard of that. Oops. I mean, I've heard of that. :DOriginally Posted by tdol
I've read it has to do with phonetics; that speakers tend to reduce or omit the contracted form of 'have' (-'ve), pronounced as either [v] or [f], to [h], which is a productive sound change process in all of the World's languages.
Is it slang? I doubt it. It seems more like human physiology is at play. That is, in terms of ease of articulation, it's very economical to reduce the number of gestures it takes to pronounce a given sound.
Some have even suggested that [v] ~ [f] reducing to [h] started the whole Present Perfect and Simple Past merger. Hmm.
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