Re: Sentence correction
Someone with a better understanding of "why" may still answer this, but the short answer is "No, you cannot take every transitive verb and use the particple form as a pre-modifying adjective."
If the action leaves the items in a changed state, it is possible.
I smashed the vase. I cleaned up the smashed vase. The vase was in a "state" of being smashed.
I frightend the people. The frightened people cried. The people were in a "state" of being frightened.
However, if I bump into someone, they don't continue in a state of "bumped." They are not changed by the process of bumping. You wouldn't write "The bumped person complained loudly."
However, if a bump into someone hard enough that they fall down and are injured, being injured is now a state. "I bumped into someone and he fell, banging his elbow quite hard. However, the injured man was quite gracious when I apologized."
A buidling, once stormed, doesn't continue in a state of being stormed. It's a momentary action. It could be damaged, or ravaged, or destroyed, but the momentary action of storming it does not create a "stormed" condition. It can created a damaged buidling.
There are some cases where it will be obvious that the verb and the resulting state are the same (ripped, injured, etc.) There will be some where it's obvious that they are not the same. And there will be many in the middle when you may have to ask a native speaker if it sounds natural.
I'm not a teacher, but I write for a living. Please don't ask me about 2nd conditionals, but I'm a safe bet for what reads well in (American) English.