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    #1

    will vs going to need to have been

    " They are current on their mortgage: Borrowers will need to have been current on their loan for the past 6 months and have missed no more than one payment in the 6 months prior."

    Can ''going to" be used as in ".......are going to need to have been current on their loan....." ? If so,did you hear some one use it? What does "to be current on a loan" mean?

  1. Barb_D's Avatar
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    #2

    Re: will vs going to need to have been

    Your suggestion sounds awkward to me.

    It means they have not been late making their payment. If their payment is due on the 1st, it is paid by the 1st.
    I'm not a teacher, but I write for a living. Please don't ask me about 2nd conditionals, but I'm a safe bet for what reads well in (American) English.

  2. emsr2d2's Avatar
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    #3

    Re: will vs going to need to have been

    I had guess what "to be current on your loan" means but I've never heard it before. In fact, I can think of two potential meanings:

    - up-to-date with their loan
    - have held the current loan for a minimum of six months

    I find it difficult to reconcile "up-to-date with your loan" with having missed one payment in six months. To me, someone who has missed a payment can't be up-to-date or current. So I'm going with the second definition. In which case, I would say:

    Borrowers will need to have held their current loan for a minimum of six months and to have missed no more than one payment in the last six months.

    In answer to your main question, "Borrowers are going to need to have ..." doesn't really work here.

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    #4

    Re: will vs going to need to have been

    Quote Originally Posted by emsr2d2 View Post
    I had guess what "to be current on your loan" means but I've never heard it before. In fact, I can think of two potential meanings:

    - up-to-date with their loan
    - have held the current loan for a minimum of six months

    I find it difficult to reconcile "up-to-date with your loan" with having missed one payment in six months. To me, someone who has missed a payment can't be up-to-date or current. So I'm going with the second definition. In which case, I would say:

    Borrowers will need to have held their current loan for a minimum of six months and to have missed no more than one payment in the last six months.

    In answer to your main question, "Borrowers are going to need to have ..." doesn't really work here.
    "Will" is used to mean a strong obligation in the future in "will need to......"?

  3. 5jj's Avatar
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    #5

    Re: will vs going to need to have been

    Quote Originally Posted by ostap77 View Post
    "Will" is used to mean a strong obligation in the future in "will need to......"?
    No.

  4. Barb_D's Avatar
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    #6

    Re: will vs going to need to have been

    My understanding is that you cannot have been late at all in the last six months, and in the six months prior to that, you can have been late one, but no more than once.

    So, it's February. No late payments at all -- completely current -- in January, December, November, October, September, August, or July. From January through June of 2011, you may have been late ONCE.

    It's common here to say that you are "current" to mean you've made your loan repayment as agreed.
    I'm not a teacher, but I write for a living. Please don't ask me about 2nd conditionals, but I'm a safe bet for what reads well in (American) English.

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    #7

    Re: will vs going to need to have been

    Quote Originally Posted by Barb_D View Post
    My understanding is that you cannot have been late at all in the last six months, and in the six months prior to that, you can have been late one, but no more than once.

    So, it's February. No late payments at all -- completely current -- in January, December, November, October, September, August, or July. From January through June of 2011, you may have been late ONCE.

    It's common here to say that you are "current" to mean you've made your loan repayment as agreed.
    Does "will" here convey a strong prediction?

  5. emsr2d2's Avatar
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    #8

    Re: will vs going to need to have been

    Quote Originally Posted by Barb_D View Post
    My understanding is that you cannot have been late at all in the last six months, and in the six months prior to that, you can have been late one, but no more than once.

    So, it's February. No late payments at all -- completely current -- in January, December, November, October, September, August, or July. From January through June of 2011, you may have been late ONCE.

    It's common here to say that you are "current" to mean you've made your loan repayment as agreed.
    Yes, you're right. I hadn't really grasped the point of "six months prior". Perhaps if it had said "the six months prior" I might have realised it meant "prior to the previously mentioned six months". I guess using "current" is an AmE usage - I'm pretty sure I haven't heard it in BrE. I would always say "up-to-date with your payments".

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    #9

    Re: will vs going to need to have been

    It is impossible to say exactly what message 'will' carries without more context. Is this something you read? If so, what came before? Was it a letter? An advertisement? You have been a member of this forum long enough to know that the more context we have, the more satisfactory the answer is likely to be.

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    #10

    Re: will vs going to need to have been

    It sounds to me like certain borrowers will qualify for something or other if they meet these conditions.

    So "Borrowers will need to ..." states a condition that they must meet in order to qualify.

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