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  1. Barb_D's Avatar
    • Member Info
      • Member Type:
      • Other
      • Native Language:
      • American English
      • Home Country:
      • United States
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      • United States

    • Join Date: Mar 2007
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    #11

    Re: Why it has this rule?

    Regarding point 1b, the government has said no such thing. Societal norms determine what is acceptable and what is not, and in which situations, not the government!
    I'm not a teacher, but I write for a living. Please don't ask me about 2nd conditionals, but I'm a safe bet for what reads well in (American) English.

  2. sumon.'s Avatar
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      • Student or Learner
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      • Bengali; Bangla
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      • Bangladesh
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    #12

    Re: Why it has this rule?

    I would like to give some examples of verb forms of Bengali language.(Because I feel(ing) very interested)
    As I said most of the verbs have two parts. We only change the second part.
    Suppose 'simple' is a noun , we will make it verbs adding a verb('do', it is the second part). ( proper example would be 'addition do' as 'simple' is an adjective)
    So the verb will be "simple do" in Bengali but 'simplify' in English.
    We also make verbs adding the verb 'do' with adjectives. For example, make something nice
    = nice do.
    Ha ha.. isn't it interesting?
    We like our verb forms. So I think languages are really interesting and complicated systems of communicating with each other.
    Last edited by sumon.; 13-Feb-2012 at 17:23. Reason: proper example

  3. 5jj's Avatar
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      • Retired English Teacher
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    #13

    Re: Why it has this rule?

    Quote Originally Posted by TheParser View Post
    (ii) Shakespeare had one of his characters say: "the town is beseech'd, and the trumpet call (instead of calls) us to the breach."
    Indeed, but Shakespeare was presenting an Irish character, (one who possibly spoke English as a foreign language) whose speech was non-standard in many ways, as we see in the rest of the speech, here

  4. bhaisahab's Avatar
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    #14

    Re: Why it has this rule?

    For an Irish person in the 17th century, English would have almost certainly been a foreign language.

  5. 5jj's Avatar
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      • Retired English Teacher
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    #15

    Re: Why it has this rule?

    Quote Originally Posted by TheParser View Post
    y(IMHO, of course!) the greatest grammarian who has ever lived (and who will ever live): Professor George Oliver Curme.
    Hmmm. There have been a lot of grammarians over the last three thousand years, including, to name but a tiny handful, Aristotle, Dionysius Thrax, Jacob Grimm, Otto Jespersen, Kamta Prasad Guru, Kātyāyana, Lancelot & Arnauld, Priscian, Randolph Quirk, Henry Sweet, Ali Taramakhi, not to mention Chomsky, Halliday, Quirk, ...
    Last edited by 5jj; 13-Feb-2012 at 14:26.

    • Member Info
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      • Thai
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    #16

    Re: Why it has this rule?

    Thank you to all. I never give up studying English.

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