When a verb is in common, pararell relationship with the previous verb, can "have(has) be omitted like in the following? Does "spent" imply "have" in itself or are "spent" and "have spent" both possible?
ex)For example, the first Hollywood blockbuster was probably Ben Hur(1959). The producers spent $15million making it. It was the most expensive movie ever at that time. Since then, Hollywood has made hundreds of blockbusters and spent(have spent?) millions of dollars on them...
Yes, 'has' here is (quite legitimately) ellipted before 'spent'.