[Grammar] about participle clause

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pseudo

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Dear teachers, I have a question about participle clause.
I have learned when one action happens before another action, we use having p.p. for the first action.

Since he looks very tired today, he won't come here tomorrow.
--> s1. Having looked very tired today, he won't come here tomorrow.
--> s2. Looking very tired today, he won't come here tomorrow.

which one is correct?
 

Tdol

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I have learned when one action happens before another action, we use having p.p. for the first action.

Where did you see this? It's far from an accurate picture of what happens.
 

Barb_D

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It probably works well for a lot of actions, but not for states of being. It would be used to say that it's because the first action is complete, the second action is now possible.
Having stamped the letter, she mailed it.
Having knocked on the door, he opened it.
Having washed her hands, she started cooking.

But it's often not the most natural way to express the sequence. "She washed her hands and started cooking" is just fine.
 

pseudo

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I read it from <Grammar in Use Intermediate> p.130
Surely, the sentence I suggested is not in the book.
I think s2 is natural and I want to know whether s1 is correct or not.
IMG_0219.JPG
 

pseudo

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Thank you for your reply.
 

Tdol

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To be honest, I wouldn't use them as I don't feel they link the two aspects as well as using since/because, etc, as the original sentence is about cause and effect.
 

pseudo

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Thank you for your reply.
Maybe I made a silly question. -_-;;
 

Tdol

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Not at all- that's how we learn. ;-)
 

NewHopeR

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Not at all- that's how we learn. ;-)


Especially when the question is picked up from an "authoritative grammar book". ;-)
 

BrunaBC

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On the book picture pseudo posted, it was written 'someplace' all together. Is it right?
 
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