This is related to American history, so I feel quite dizzy as I'm ignorant of any of it.
1. According to my research, the slaughtering by butchers caused cholera, thus an action to control them happened. So does the 1 line mean that the government can't take the responsibility for the butchers' claim as they are not ex-slaves?
2. Why did the situation limit the application of the amendment? Is it because the initial intention of the legislation was for nation-wide application? I don't get it.
ex)During the late 19th century in America, almost 600 cases involving the Fourteenth Amendment came to the Supreme Court, of which fewer than 30 dealt with ex-slaves. The first detailed discussion by the Supreme Court of the Fourteenth Amendment came in 1873 with the Slaughter-House Cases. When a group of butchers claimed that a monopoly on the slaughtering of livestock deprived them of equal protection of the laws as provided in Section 1 of the Fourteenth Amendment, the Supreme Court answered that the amendment was designed only to protect newly freed slaves. It also stated that the situation the butchers objected to was in the domain of the relationship between the state and its citizens, not the federal government, thus limiting the application of the amendment.
Thanks a lot for your long endeavor. I don't know how to repay it. If I could do something for you, I would do it.