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  1. #1
    sky3120's Avatar
    sky3120 is offline Member
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    Default Please help me out

    I have learned that 'All of us' is All=us, 'it all' is it=us. Then, can I say that all is equal to my money in ' I lost all of my money'. I don't think all is equal to my money but the sentence structure is the same as I took it all ( all of it ) and in some particular context, I think it is possible if they already knew what the 'all' meant and all the speaker had $100. It is so confusing. Could you help me out please. Thank you in advance.
    Last edited by sky3120; 20-Jul-2012 at 05:42.

  2. #2
    TheParser is offline VIP Member
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    Default Re: Please help me out

    Hello, Sky:

    I was wondering whether the following might be helpful:

    1. I lost all my money. (correct)

    2. I lost all of my money (correct)

    3. I lost my money all. (incorrect)

    *****

    4. I lost all it. (incorrect)

    5. I lost all of it. (correct)

    6. I lost it all. (correct)

    As you probably already know, No. 3 is incorrect because "money" is a noun; No. 4 is incorrect because "it" is a pronoun.

    *****

    According to many usagists ("good English" advisers), in formal writing, there is no need to use "of." So I guess that

    many usagists would prefer No. 1 to No. 2. But there are some usagists who would probably prefer No. 2 because it is,

    I think, a so-called partitive phrase. That is, it refers to a part of something. In this case, your money. Compare:

    Some of your money.
    Much of your money.
    All of your money.

    *****

    Hopefully, other people will join this discussion.

    CREDIT: If you want a scholarly discussion regarding "all of," please google:

    "All" in partitive phrases

    Then click on the 9th result that is entitled English Syntax Carl Lee Baker. Read his pages 167 - 168; 175 - 177.

    Thanks for your question. I learned a lot.

  3. #3
    billmcd is offline Key Member
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    Default Re: Please help me out

    Quote Originally Posted by TheParser View Post
    Hello, Sky:

    I was wondering whether the following might be helpful:

    1. I lost all my money. (correct)

    2. I lost all of my money (correct)

    3. I lost my money all. (incorrect)

    *****

    4. I lost all it. (incorrect)

    5. I lost all of it. (correct)

    6. I lost it all. (correct)

    As you probably already know, No. 3 is incorrect because "money" is a noun; No. 4 is incorrect because "it" is a pronoun.

    *****

    According to many usagists ("good English" advisers), in formal writing, there is no need to use "of." So I guess that

    many usagists would prefer No. 1 to No. 2. But there are some usagists who would probably prefer No. 2 because it is,

    I think, a so-called partitive phrase. That is, it refers to a part of something. In this case, your money. Compare:

    Some of your money.
    Much of your money.
    All of your money.

    *****

    Hopefully, other people will join this discussion.

    CREDIT: If you want a scholarly discussion regarding "all of," please google:

    "All" in partitive phrases

    Then click on the 9th result that is entitled English Syntax Carl Lee Baker. Read his pages 167 - 168; 175 - 177.

    Thanks for your question. I learned a lot.
    And you have contributed a lot!

  4. #4
    Frank Antonson's Avatar
    Frank Antonson is offline Senior Member
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    Default Re: Please help me out

    Would it help any to add that "all" is an indefinite pronoun, which can be singular or plural?

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