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  1. #1
    NewHopeR is offline Senior Member
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    Default Does "after her 8-week gestation since menolipsis" sound natural?

    The examination conducted after her 8-week gestation since menolipsis showed everything going well.

  2. #2
    bhaisahab's Avatar
    bhaisahab is offline Moderator
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    Default Re: Does "after her 8-week gestation since menolipsis" sound natural?

    Quote Originally Posted by NewHopeR View Post
    The examination conducted after her 8-week gestation since menolipsis showed everything going well.
    It doesn't make sense. Try, "The examination conducted after 8 weeks gestation showed everything going well."

  3. #3
    BobK's Avatar
    BobK is offline Harmless drudge
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    Default Re: Does "after her 8-week gestation since menolipsis" sound natural?

    If gestation is happening, menolipsis must have occurred, so there's no need to use it.

    b

  4. #4
    Rover_KE is offline Moderator
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    Default Re: Does "after her 8-week gestation since menolipsis" sound natural?

    If anybody's wondering. . .

    menolipsis [men″o-lip´sis]temporary cessation of menstruation.
    Miller-Keane Encyclopedia and Dictionary of Medicine, Nursing, and Allied Health, Seventh Edition. © 2003 by Saunders, an imprint of Elsevier, Inc. All rights reserved.
    Rover
    (Not a gynaecologist)

  5. #5
    emsr2d2's Avatar
    emsr2d2 is offline Moderator
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    Default Re: Does "after her 8-week gestation since menolipsis" sound natural?

    Quote Originally Posted by Rover_KE View Post
    Rover
    (Not a gynaecologist)

    That should really be your new signature line Rover!

    If gestation is happening then menolipsis must have occurred, I agree. The reverse is not true though, in case anyone else was wondering!
    Remember - correct capitalisation, punctuation and spacing make posts much easier to read.

  6. #6
    Raymott's Avatar
    Raymott is offline VIP Member
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    Default Re: Does "after her 8-week gestation since menolipsis" sound natural?

    Quote Originally Posted by NewHopeR View Post
    The examination conducted after her 8-week gestation since menolipsis showed everything going well.
    Menolipsis? I've never heard the term. Has anyone else?
    We call it amenorrhoea or a 'missed period'. Where did you find 'menolipsis' used?

  7. #7
    SoothingDave is offline VIP Member
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    Default Re: Does "after her 8-week gestation since menolipsis" sound natural?

    In the US, they would refer to how many weeks since LMP (last menstrual period).

  8. #8
    emsr2d2's Avatar
    emsr2d2 is offline Moderator
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    Default Re: Does "after her 8-week gestation since menolipsis" sound natural?

    Quote Originally Posted by Raymott View Post
    Menolipsis? I've never heard the term. Has anyone else?
    We call it amenorrhoea or a 'missed period'. Where did you find 'menolipsis' used?
    Amenorrhea seems to be "absence of period" but menolipsis specifically "temporary/temporal absence".
    Remember - correct capitalisation, punctuation and spacing make posts much easier to read.

  9. #9
    Raymott's Avatar
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    Default Re: Does "after her 8-week gestation since menolipsis" sound natural?

    Quote Originally Posted by emsr2d2 View Post
    Amenorrhea seems to be "absence of period" but menolipsis specifically "temporary/temporal absence".
    In 23 years of medical practice, I've never heard the term 'menolipsis'. That's the point I was making.
    When you have a patient with amenorrhoea (for one month or 10 years), you can't tell if it's menolipsis or not until/unless she gets another period. It's necessarily a term you can only use in hindsight: "She went for a period of three months with menolipsis/amenorrhea last year." I can't see that the term has any benefit over 'amenorrhoea', and Australian doctors and US and British Obstetric textbooks don't use the term. That's why I was wondering where NewHope found it.

  10. #10
    emsr2d2's Avatar
    emsr2d2 is offline Moderator
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    Default Re: Does "after her 8-week gestation since menolipsis" sound natural?

    Quote Originally Posted by Raymott View Post
    In 23 years of medical practice, I've never heard the term 'menolipsis'. That's the point I was making.
    When you have a patient with amenorrhoea (for one month or 10 years), you can't tell if it's menolipsis or not until/unless she gets another period. It's necessarily a term you can only use in hindsight: "She went for a period of three months with menolipsis/amenorrhea last year." I can't see that the term has any benefit over 'amenorrhoea', and Australian doctors and US and British Obstetric textbooks don't use the term. That's why I was wondering where NewHope found it.
    Well, you should know!! But for info, I searched it and found it here and here. However, it doesn't come up in the online OED now that I've checked. I only searched for it because it had been posted here. I'd certainly never heard of it before - understandably as I have absolutely no days of medical practice, let alone years!
    Remember - correct capitalisation, punctuation and spacing make posts much easier to read.

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