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  1. keannu's Avatar
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    #1

    He had the peach to himself.

    What's the difference between 1 and 2? What is the function of "to himself" here? It sounds really awkward to me.

    1. He had the peach.
    2. He had the peach to himself.

  2. probus's Avatar
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    #2

    Re: He had the peach to himself.

    It is an idiom. To have something to oneself means to enjoy exclusive possession and use of it, with absolutely no need to share it with anyone else. A Canadian example: If we can just get rid of those pesky Russians and Scandinavians, we'll have the whole Arctic to ourselves.

  3. BobK's Avatar
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    #3

    Re: He had the peach to himself.

    So 'He had the peach to himself' is quite unlikely, unless peach-sharing is the norm. But many holiday-makers say things like "It was lovely, and totally off the beaten track. We had the beach to ourselves.'

    b

  4. BobK's Avatar
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    #4

    Re: He had the peach to himself.

    Afterthought: don't be confused (if you are) by similar expressions in other languages - e.g. comerse. If this isn't relevant to your question, forget it.

    b

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