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  1. #1
    NewHopeR is offline Senior Member
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    Default Is "the era of one drug for one disease is over" okay grammatically?

    I edit it to be:

    The era that one drug is used against one disease is over.

    Your opinion will be appreciated.

  2. #2
    Gillnetter is online now Key Member
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    Default Re: Is "the era of one drug for one disease is over" okay grammatically?

    Quote Originally Posted by NewHopeR View Post
    I edit it to be:

    The era that one drug is used against one disease is over.

    Your opinion will be appreciated.
    Consider changing the underlined words.

  3. #3
    NewHopeR is offline Senior Member
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    Default Re: Is "the era of one drug for one disease is over" okay grammatically?

    Quote Originally Posted by Gillnetter View Post
    Consider changing the underlined words.
    How about:

    The era "one drug for one disease" is over.

  4. #4
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    5jj is offline VIP Member
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    Default Re: Is "the era of one drug for one disease is over" okay grammatically?

    The era of "one drug for one disease" is over is fine
    Please do not edit your question after it has received a response. Such editing can make the response hard for others to understand.


  5. #5
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    Default Re: Is "the era of one drug for one disease is over" okay grammatically?

    Hmm, that makes me wonder when it began. I doubt there was ever such an era.

  6. #6
    5jj's Avatar
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    Default Re: Is "the era of one drug for one disease is over" okay grammatically?

    Quote Originally Posted by Raymott View Post
    Hmm, that makes me wonder when it began.
    I have no idea, but I googled "one drug for one disease" and found a lot of articles mentioning it, including a couple, from pharmaceutical compamies, presenting this as an aim.
    Please do not edit your question after it has received a response. Such editing can make the response hard for others to understand.


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