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  1. #1
    NewHopeR is offline Senior Member
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    Default Is "the era of one drug for one disease is over" okay grammatically?

    I edit it to be:

    The era that one drug is used against one disease is over.

    Your opinion will be appreciated.

  2. #2
    Gillnetter is offline Key Member
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    Default Re: Is "the era of one drug for one disease is over" okay grammatically?

    Quote Originally Posted by NewHopeR View Post
    I edit it to be:

    The era that one drug is used against one disease is over.

    Your opinion will be appreciated.
    Consider changing the underlined words.

  3. #3
    NewHopeR is offline Senior Member
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    Default Re: Is "the era of one drug for one disease is over" okay grammatically?

    Quote Originally Posted by Gillnetter View Post
    Consider changing the underlined words.
    How about:

    The era "one drug for one disease" is over.

  4. #4
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    5jj is offline VIP Member
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    Default Re: Is "the era of one drug for one disease is over" okay grammatically?

    The era of "one drug for one disease" is over is fine

  5. #5
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    Default Re: Is "the era of one drug for one disease is over" okay grammatically?

    Hmm, that makes me wonder when it began. I doubt there was ever such an era.

  6. #6
    5jj's Avatar
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    Default Re: Is "the era of one drug for one disease is over" okay grammatically?

    Quote Originally Posted by Raymott View Post
    Hmm, that makes me wonder when it began.
    I have no idea, but I googled "one drug for one disease" and found a lot of articles mentioning it, including a couple, from pharmaceutical compamies, presenting this as an aim.

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