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  1. #1
    iexcie is offline Newbie
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    Default Why " a lowering of demands" ?

    I have seen this form several times only now to ask myself:

    why "a lowering of demands" and not "lowering of demands"?

    Lowering is uncountable, so it should not be given an article - that's the logic I know.

  2. #2
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    MikeNewYork is offline VIP Member
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    Default Re: Why " a lowering of demands" ?

    It is more complicated than that. Context would be helpful.

  3. #3
    iexcie is offline Newbie
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    Default Re: Why " a lowering of demands" ?

    a drop in oli prices should lead to "a lowering of intrest rates"

    Let me guess: is it that lowering here stands for something like reduction - despite its gerundive apparition?

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    Default Re: Why " a lowering of demands" ?

    Yes, lowering stands for reduction. The indefinite article "a" here would be optional.

    One could also use "to lower interest rates".

  5. #5
    iexcie is offline Newbie
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    Default Re: Why " a lowering of demands" ?

    To clarify: did you mean that even if we treat loweing as reduction, indefinite article is not obligatory, but optional?

  6. #6
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    Default Re: Why " a lowering of demands" ?

    That depends on the context. In your sentence: a drop in oil prices should lead to "a lowering of interest rates", the article is optional.

  7. #7
    SoothingDave is offline VIP Member
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    Default Re: Why " a lowering of demands" ?

    If you consider today's market reaction to be one lowering and tomorrow's market reaction to be another lowering, then they are different, countable events. There was a lowering today and we expect a lowering tomorrow.

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