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  1. #1
    greystroke is offline Junior Member
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    Default Why do we use did instead of was and vice versa

    Hi,

    In past tense sentences why do we use a form of the verb to 'be' (i.e. was) in some sentences while using 'did' in others?.

    Is there a historical reason to this?

    E.g. What was England's score yesterday?

    What did they score?

    My question really is , is there some reason we choose one verb over the other?

    Can someone clarify please?

    Thanks,

    Greystroke

  2. #2
    5jj's Avatar
    5jj is offline VIP Member
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    Default Re: Why do we use did instead of was and vice versa

    Quote Originally Posted by greystroke View Post
    E.g. What was England's score yesterday?

    What did they score?
    In the first sentence, the verb is BE, which needs no auxiliary in the formation of questions,
    In the second sentence, the verbs is SCORE. Like all full verbs, this needs the auxiliary DO in questions.
    Please do not edit your question after it has received a response. Such editing can make the response hard for others to understand.


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