1-This was the first time he had one of his novels adapted for a movie.
Does this necessarily mean that he deliberately had that novel adapted for a movie? Couldn't it have been done against his will?
2-He had his arm broken.
Does this necessarily mean that he paid someone to break his arm?
(Not a Teacher)
1) It doesn't really give a distinct impression one way or the other, as far as author consent goes. However, one would assume the author would probably have to assent to the project before they could use his book for an adaptation. I'm no expert on copyright law, though.
2) I would think that someone else broke his arm against his will, if that sentence was all I had to go by. You would need to elaborate further before I'd think he did it to himself.