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    #1

    had his arm broken

    1-This was the first time he had one of his novels adapted for a movie.

    Does this necessarily mean that he deliberately had that novel adapted for a movie? Couldn't it have been done against his will?

    2-He had his arm broken.

    Does this necessarily mean that he paid someone to break his arm?

    Gratefully,
    Navi.

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    #2

    Re: had his arm broken

    Quote Originally Posted by navi tasan View Post
    1-This was the first time he had one of his novels adapted for a movie.

    Does this necessarily mean that he deliberately had that novel adapted for a movie? No, not necessarily. Couldn't it have been done against his will? It could have intentionally been done by him or by someone else with or without his knowledge or permission.

    2-He had his arm broken.

    Does this necessarily mean that he paid someone to break his arm? Very unlikely. Additional context would make it clear that it was broken by some other means, for example, in an athletic contest.

    Gratefully,
    Navi.
    b.

  1. SlickVic9000's Avatar
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    #3

    Re: had his arm broken

    (Not a Teacher)

    1) It doesn't really give a distinct impression one way or the other, as far as author consent goes. However, one would assume the author would probably have to assent to the project before they could use his book for an adaptation. I'm no expert on copyright law, though.

    2) I would think that someone else broke his arm against his will, if that sentence was all I had to go by. You would need to elaborate further before I'd think he did it to himself.

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