5jj, thank you!
I make confusion with the morphology of my mother tongue.
Thank you again!
Originally Posted by 5jj
No. One of the defining features of modal verbs is that they are followed by a bare infinitive, not a to-infinitive.
I would not like to confuse the matter, but does this work with "ought"? Should we regard "ought" as an exception?
Last edited by Weaver67; 23-Oct-2013 at 08:40.
It's not an exception. It's not a core modal.