Elision of phoneme /h/ in conversation.

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Dear teachers and members:


In american English (AmE), the /h/ phoneme sometimes is elided in a conversation, but I am not quite sure if this also happens in british English (BrE) too. The following is my exposition about it.

1°) The object pronouns and possessive adjetives him, her and his. When reduced to Schwa and when are not at the end of a sentence, they tend to elide the /h/ phoneme, for examples:

a) Tell him to come / ˈtɛlhəmˌkʌm / tends to elide the /h/ sounding as: / ˈtɛləmˌkʌm /

b) I told you to give her the book / ˈtəʊldʒj
əˌɡɪvrðəˈbʊk / tends to elide the /h/ sounding as: / ˈtəʊldʒjəˌɡɪvərðəˈbʊk /

c) Is this his house? / ɪzˈðɪshəzˌhs? /tends to elide the /h/ sounding as: / ɪzˈðɪsəzˌhs? /

d) I know her brother / ˌnəʊhərˈbrʌðər /tends to elide the /h/ sounding as: / ˌnəʊərˈbrʌðər /

2°) When have is preceded by the modal verbs would, could, should, must and might and is reduced to Schwa. It tends to elide the /h/ phoneme and the /d/ phoneme of the preceding modal verb becomes flap. As mentioned above, this happens if have is not at the end of a sentence, for examples:

a) Anything would have been better / ˈɛnɪˌθɪŋ
ˈwʊrəvbɪnˌbɛtər/

b) He could have done much more / hi
ˈrəvˌdʌnmʌtʃˈr/

c) It should have been you /ɪt
ˈʃʊrəvbɪnˈju/

d) it must have been love / ɪt
ˈmʌsəvbɪnˌlʌv / sometimes / ɪtˈmʌstəvbɪnˌlʌv /

e) I might have been an architec /
ˈmaɪrəvbɪnənˈɑrkɪˌtɛkt/


QUESTIONS :

1) I have noticed that the word that precedes him, her, his and have is always stressed, does this have to do anything with it?

2) Does this occur when the word that precedes him, her, his or have ends with a vowel sound?, as in: I know her brother / ˌnəʊ hər ˈbrʌðər /

3) Do the modal verbs change into Schwa in the aforementioned sentences?, as would does in the phonetic transcription:

Anything would have been better / ˈɛnɪˌθɪŋ wəd həv bɪn ˈbɛtər/

4) Do I put the primary and secondary stress properly in the phonetic transcriptions I made?

5) Must the phonetic transcription of the sentence '' I told you to give her the book '' be put into two thought groups?, as follows:

/ ˈtəʊldʒju/ / təˌɡɪvərðəˈbʊk /

5) I think when the /v/ phoneme in have is before a consonant it is not supposed to be transcribed, it seems to me that it loses its sound, doesn't it?


OBSEVATIONS :


Pronunciation note in the word VEHICLE.

Because the primary stress in vehicle is on the first syllable, the /h/ on the second syllable tends to desapear /ˈviːɪkəl/. A pronunciation with the primary stress on the second syllable and a fully pronounced /h/ is usually considered nonstandard / vɪˈhɪkjʊlə
r /. In the adjective vehicular, where the primary stress is normal on the second syllable, the /h/ is always pronounced.


As always, I will deeply appreciate your opinion and assistance in this matter


Sincerely,



The Apprentice.
 
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BobK

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Dear teachers and members:


In american English (AmE), the /h/ phoneme sometimes is elided in a conversation, but I am not quite sure if this also happens in british English (BrE) too... ]


It happens, but not always in the same cases. And sometimes elisions that are occasional according to your piece (which I have only scanned - as I'm not qualified to say what happens regularly in AE) are standardized in BE. In BE there is no /h/ in 'vehicle' (although there is in 'vehicular').

b
 

konungursvia

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I would say this happens more often in BrE, and that very short common words like 'him' and 'her' are the only cases where it's fairly common in AmE. In BrE on the other hand, it is regional, and where it happens, it's ALL instances of /h/ that go.
 

5jj

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In BrE on the other hand, it is regional, and where it happens, it's ALL instances of /h/ that go.
No.

There are dialects in which initial /h/ is almost always dropped but in most dialects of British English, the /h/ is dropped only in examples similar to those given by The apprentice. In my own dialect, reasonably educated, slightly conservative Southern Standard British, I would drop/elide the /h/ sounds I have put in brackets, but not those I have underlined:


tɛl (h)
ɪmˌkʌm/ tɛl (h)ɪmˈhʌri/
/ˈtəʊʤə təˌɡɪv (h)ɜ: ðəˈbʊk/
/ ˈtəʊʤə təˌɡɪv (h)ɜ: ðəˈhɔ:s/
/ɪzˈðɪs (h)
ɪz ˌhs?/
 
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Thank you all for your replies:


Does occur the same with the phoneme
/ð/ in the object pronoun them?


Regards,


The Apprentice.
 
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probus

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Certainly in AmE it does, and I suspect in BrE as well. We often hear "tɛləm" and when we do only context can distinguish the singular from the plural.

By the way, you need to invert in a question: "Does the same occur ..."?
 
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Thank you Probus for your reply and correction.


You are quite right, the order for making quiestion like this is : auxiliary + noun + verb.

Regards,


The Apprentice
 
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