I'm not a native English speaker and I have a problem with the use of has/have in following context. As far as I know has is used when the subject is singular and have is used when subject is plural, but recently I came across the following sentence,
He might have potentially played more games at home.
why have is used here when the subject (he) is singular?
The verb "might" is followed by an infinitive. Have a look here http://www.perfectyourenglish.com/grammar/might.htm.
I am not a teacher.