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    #1

    Is "I have gone to..." grammatically wrong?

    i was discussing when my student who happens to be a grammar teacher in Korea said "I HAVE GONE TO..." is grammatically wrong...
    the phrase is widely used in the Philippines and i suppose it is right to use such to mean "i have visited..." or "i have been to..."
    if it is wrong, why?

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    #2

    Re: Is "I have gone to..." grammatically wrong?

    ahhh..i have read some postings before...

    i have gone to means..."i am not here cos i have gone somewhere" which is simply illogical...cos nobod would be saying such...
    the phrase is mainly used in the 2nd and 3rd person cases...

    and american english would use the [phraes...the british english would
    avoid using it!

    comments please...add more

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    #3

    Re: Is "I have gone to..." grammatically wrong?

    It depends on the context- if you're writing a note, it makes perfect sense to say 'I have gone to the shops' so that anyone readig it knows why you aren't there.


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    #4

    Re: Is "I have gone to..." grammatically wrong?

    I believe that "have gone to" implies that you are still there (at your destination) or on your way. That is why it is difficult to say it in the first person (except in a note).
    "Have been to" refers to an experience, a visit... but you are back.

    Fred has gone to Italy (he is in Italy or on his way there).
    Fred has been to Italy (he is here, but in the past, sometime, he went to Italy).

  1. BobK's Avatar
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    #5

    Re: Is "I have gone to..." grammatically wrong?

    Quote Originally Posted by julaaaaa View Post
    I believe that "have gone to" implies that you are still there (at your destination) or on your way. That is why it is difficult to say it in the first person (except in a note).
    ...
    This is true (in fact I think I said something like this elsewhere in this forum) as long as 'go' has a meaning involving physical movement. It's possible to say 'I've gone to great lengths to...' (because the speaker is still at the destination, it's just that the destination isn't physical so the speaker is still present). A speaker who says 'I've gone to great lengths to accommodate your demands' is signalling - by using 'gone' rather than 'been' - that he's not going any further: 'I've gone that far, and I'm staying there'. (At least, that's the way I hear it.)

    b

  2. Raymott's Avatar
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    #6

    Re: Is "I have gone to..." grammatically wrong?

    This is also possible:

    Doctor: How are you today?
    Patient: I have gone from bad to worse. (Allowing for him to get even worse).

    A: [On phone] I thought you were in Rome.
    B: No, I've come/been and gone from Rome. I'm in Athens.

    But none of this answers the OP's point.
    "I have gone to ..." does not mean "I have been to ..."

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    #7

    Re: Is "I have gone to..." grammatically wrong?

    In North American English, 'I have gone to...' is used to mean 'I have been to...'.

  3. Soup's Avatar
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    #8

    Re: Is "I have gone to..." grammatically wrong?

    Quote Originally Posted by 2006 View Post
    In North American English, 'I have gone to...' is used to mean 'I have been to...'.
    Agreed.

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    #9

    Re: Is "I have gone to..." grammatically wrong?

    Quote Originally Posted by 2006 View Post
    In North American English, 'I have gone to...' is used to mean 'I have been to...'.
    It is completely illogical to say as opposed to write "I have gone to anywhere". If you had gone, you woudn't be there to say it.

  5. Raymott's Avatar
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    #10

    Re: Is "I have gone to..." grammatically wrong?

    Quote Originally Posted by bhaisahab View Post
    It is completely illogical to say as opposed to write "I have gone to anywhere". If you had gone, you woudn't be there to say it.
    Since when has logic come into it? If that is how the Americans have decided they will say "I have been to ..." then that is what they understand by it, even if other English speakers don't.

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