[Grammar] have had

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SUJANLONDON

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I always have the confusion of using "have had" together in a sentence. I have tried to figure for many month but did not get much understanding.
Please explain it deeply with at least five examples.
Thank in advance.
 

MikeNewYork

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Here's a better idea. You provide five examples and we will comment on them.
 

Raymott

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You use it the same as any other construction in the present perfect tense: "have spoken", "have posted", etc.
The auxiliary verb is a version of "to have" (has, have) and the main verb, in this case, is the past participle of "to have", ie. had.
All you need to do is decide whether you are talking about speaking, posting or having.
 

SUJANLONDON

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OK, good idea.
There are my five sentences:
1. I have had a breakfast.
2. I have had a talk with her.(Is this tells that I talked to her few minutes ago?)And what is the difference between the previous statement and "I had a talk with her."
3. I have had a busy schedule.(Does it also suggests that I still have a busy schedule?)
4.Sue has had a red bike for two years.(Does it means that she still owns?)
5.I have had sex last to last day.
 
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SUJANLONDON

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He has had a bad day.

Can't we just say he had a bad day ?

What is the difference between these two sentences..
 

emsr2d2

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I have no idea what you're trying to say with #5. When exactly is "last to last day"?
 

Raymott

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The day before yesterday?
 

Raymott

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Then that's how we say it - "the day before yesterday." Also "the day after tomorrow". Beyond that, it's "three days ago", or "in three days time" for future, etc.
 

Roman55

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Raymott

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No, the last day was yesterday, and the last to last day was the day before. Congratulations to the OP in any case.
 
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