1. a. "A traditional male-dominated society would not accept the imposition of a quota requirement for the participation of women in an elected assembly".
1. b. "A traditional male-dominated society would not accept the imposition of a quota requirement for the participation of women in elections".
I am not sure why article "the" instead of zero article was used before "participation" since the participation implied is not about a woman but women. Why is participation is unique in these two sentences?
2. Why "the" in the following phrases: the process of education, the idea of a book, the expansion of a city, the division of labor? Is it because the nouns before which they appear are attribute-nouns, or because the noun that "the" premodifies can only be attributed to a one single noun that is the object of "of phrase"?
I need your help.
Thank you Coffa. But I want to know what rule(s) support the use or non-use of article "the" in the sentences
Here's a great source: "Five Sources of Definiteness". Scroll down to LEARNING HINT #4 and also check out the Answers and Explanations to the Exercises.
All the best.
You are highly intelligent. Your input is very useful. However, I would like you to explain why "the" before "participation" in 1a given that it is intended for more than one woman.
I must say that you have greatly helped me. Thank you.
It's "the participation of a woman" or "the participation of women". It doesn't matter whether woman is plural or not.
Thank you all for your help.
You're most welcome, kooiu.