The stone which the builder refused
is ( why not has ?) become the headstone in the corner.
When the oldman was (why not had ?) gone, God called to Abraham
and asked him where the stranger was.
(In the above both sentences why is used instead of has & had
and if has or had been used what would be the difference in meaning.)
1) I have had many problems since I became manager of this shop.
2) I have many problems since I became manager of this shop.
What is the difference between number 1 & 2.
1)I went to church with a view to comfort myself.
2)I went to church with a view to comforting myself.
What is the difference between number 1 & 2
and when to use an infinitive & gerund, please explain in detail.
Please do reply me answers and don't quote TOFEL BOOKS.
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You are using a version of the Bible that is not in modern English. In modern English, it should really be (as you have pointed out) “has become”.Originally Posted by dipak trivedi
This is acceptable: “to be gone” means “to have left”. (IMHO, “had gone” would sound incomplete here: “When the old man had gone …” – gone where?)Originally Posted by dipak trivedi
Two different meanings of “since” here:Originally Posted by dipak trivedi
1 means: I have had many problems from the time of my becoming manager of the shop. (since = from the time)
2 means: I have many many problems because I became manager of the shop. (since = because)
I think they mean the same, but 2 sounds much better to me. As for when to use an infinitive and when a gerund, if you don’t mind, I think I’ll let somebody else explain it to you. :)Originally Posted by dipak trivedi