"I'll bath the baby" is ungrammatical because the sentence has no verb. This, of course, does not preclude a large number of native English speakers from saying it that way. (Although I've never heard that usage)
Many times, nouns are pressed into service as verbs because the exact verb did not exist before the noun was invented, or because it is convenient to do so. When we call someone on the phone, we phone them; when we add oil to a machine, we oil it; when we use text messaging, we text someone. Since bathe already exists as the verb form of the noun bath, then we can not use bath as a verb.
Is there really no difference between BrE and AmE ?
I bathe the dog= I bath the dog...is it right..? ?
I bath my dog -although used, this is not grammatical
My dog needs a bath -correct English [bath-noun]
I bathe the dog -correct English [verb]
I give a bath to my dog- correct English [bath - noun]
There may be some differences between Br.E and Am. E. but if you want to improve your knowledge of English, try to follow the rules of Standard English.
All the best
bath = noun
bathe = verb
Until somebody asked me the difference. I gave him the same explanation as Mykwyner.
He said that he found both words used interchangeably and was confused. When I checked the dictionary and found the word "bath" used as a verb.
But in adherence to my belief, I told him how people press nouns as "to bath" to make the verbs "bath". And since we already have the verb "bathe", we can use bathe.
I just want some affirmation to my beliefs here.
Last edited by Harry Smith; 13-Jul-2007 at 08:53.