At last, the crying baby was contented with his mother's comfort and fell asleep.
At last, the crying baby was content with his mother's comfort and fell asleep.
Do both of the above sound right and convey the same idea? If not, why not? Thanks.
At last, the crying baby was contented with his mother's comfort and fell asleep
makes sense to me only in the passive with "by" (contented by)
The second sentence just doesn't make sense to me because "the mother's comfort" without the passive connotation could be a comfort completely unconnected to the baby (although, of course, we can figure it out from context). It simply seems awkward.
I think perhaps because "comfort" is an abstract noun, the "by" (and passive -ed link) somehow creates a sense of the action and concrete-ness of the comfort...
Ok, I'm tired. I know that sounds a little flaky
Thanks, Ron and Fiona.