She knew she shouldn't cause trouble to people.
The above sentence comes from BNC. My question is: Does 'cause trouble to sb' completely equal 'cause trouble for sb'?
Could I ask native English teachers to help me please? Thank you very much.
My instintive response is that there is a difference. Causing trouble to someone is requiring them to do something that interferes with their own lives, and causing trouble for someone is doing something that will rebound on them so as to make them seem at fault.