Are these two sentences correct? Do they mean the same thing? Can I use them in the same context or situations?
1) I bought a new doll to you to play with in the yard.
2) I bought a new doll to you to play in the yard.
Could I use "I have bought" instead of "I bought" in both of them, or I'd be wrong?
Thanks so much for your explanations!
Thank you for the correction, but can you answer all my questions?? Thanks very much!
1) Engee30 supplied a correction which is acceptable for this.
2) The second correction supplied does not work. The word "with" is required. It refers back to the "doll."
Also, I notice you used "bought"; I wonder if you meant "brought." If you did, then your own first sentence is just fine -- except for the spelling of "brought."
Thus: I brought a new doll to you, to play with in the yard.
This also works with the word "for": I brought a new doll for you to play with in the yard.
In reply to the other part of your question:
Yes, you could say "I have bought." Again, it would be in the first example only, as you have left out the word "with" in the second example.
Hope this helps.