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Thread: Have had

  1. #11
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    Note, make up is a verb; make-up is a noun
    1. I have never killed him. (This is a verb, and it's correct?)
    2. I have never had make-up before. (Is it b/c Make-up needs to be a noun b/c it is not an adjective?

  2. #12
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    1) is correct. It's more emphatic than "I didn't kill him".
    2) looks correct to me.

    FRC

  3. #13
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    Quote Originally Posted by jack
    Note, make up is a verb; make-up is a noun
    1. I have never killed him. (This is a verb, and it's correct?)
    2. I have never had make-up before. (Is it b/c Make-up needs to be a noun b/c it is not an adjective?
    I'm not sure I understand what you are asking. Sorry.

    In 1., 'never', a frequency adverb, is not compatible with 'kill him', a telic verb (i.e., it happens once; he dies once), unless that is we're talking about animate beings that never die or have more than one life, as in a video game. So, 1. is grammatical if we're talking about a video game, and it's not grammatical if we are talking about a human being.

    In 2., 'make-up' functions as a noun. If we replaced it with a verb, the result is ungrammatical,

    EX: I have never had make up before. (Not OK)

    The above sentence is ungrammatical for two reasons: 1) 'had' is a transitive verb, which means it needs an object. 'make up' is not an object (i.e. a nominal: noun, adjective, preposition); It's a verb. 2) There are two verbs in the sentence: 'have...had' and 'make up'. A sentence has one verb only. In order to make the sentence grammatical, we have to omit one of the verbs and we have to add an object. We can do that by changing the verb 'make up' to its nominal form 'make-up'. That hyphen (-) sure is important. :D

    All the best, :D

  4. #14
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    Right, 1) doesn't look that correct eventually. In colloquial French, you could say that

    FRC

  5. #15
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    Do these make sense? What do they mean?

    1. For the last two days, I had six hours of sleep.
    2. For the last two days, I have six hours of sleep?

  6. #16
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    Can someone help me with the post above? Thanks.

  7. #17
    Tdol is offline Editor, UsingEnglish.com
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    I have had two hours' sleep in the last two days.

  8. #18
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    So I can't use these ones? Why not?
    1. For the last two days, I had six hours of sleep.
    2. For the last two days, I have six hours of sleep?

    Are these correct? If so, what do they mean?
    3. I never had this problem before.
    4. I never have this problem before.

  9. #19
    Tdol is offline Editor, UsingEnglish.com
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    1&2- the tense are wrong- 'the last two days' is a period of time beginning in the past and continuing to now, so that past tense doesn't work becaus eitdoesn't continue to now and the present doesn't work because it doesn't go back into the past.

    3 isOK, though I would use the presentperfect. This usage is, I believe, more common in American Enlgish. 4 Doesn't work.

  10. #20
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    Thanks.

    1&2- the tense are wrong.
    Are these correct?
    1. The tense are wrong. (Is this correct? Why isn't 'tense' plural?)
    2. The tense is wrong. (Correct? How do you know if 'tense' is singular or plural?)

    What do these mean?
    3. You need to watch what you have said.
    4. You need to watch what you had said.
    5. You need to watch what you say.
    6. You need to watch what you said.

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