I was doing dictations and the following is part of what I have written down:
He’s returning from a successful four-year campaign in the East and he’s used to get in his way. He meets with the Rome Senate and demands that they give his soldiers land as a reward for their conquests.
I think I did hear "get in his way", but I don't think it makes sense in the context. I think it should be "get his way". What do you think? Thanks. :)
In my book, the phrase 'to be used to...' takes a noun or a gerund as the object. Following this, and also considering the audible similarity (so often misleading...), my guess would be "he's used to getting his way".