"The way people speak and write now is different from that of 25, 50 or 100 years ago.
It is I versus It is me or To whom were you talking? versus Who were you talking to?."
(G. David Morley: Syntax in Functional Grammar).
Should the subjective I fill the object slot in It is I?
Some people think It is I sounds a bit funny (especially young people), but it can be argued that it is in fact perfectly correct:
According to the traditional grammar being used here, "to be" is not
a transitive verb, but a *copulative* verb. When you say that A is
B, you don't imply that A, by being B, is doing something to B.
(After all, B is also doing it to A.) Other verbs considered
copulative are "to become", "to remain", "to seem", and "to look".
The rule for what he and others consider technically right is*not* (as is commonly misstated) that the nominative should *always*be used after "to be". Rather, it is that "to be" should link two noun phrases of the same case, whether this be nominative or accusative.
AUE: FAQ excerpt: "It's me" vs "It is I"
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