if Alice commands Bob to assault Charlie, and Alice intends for Bob to assault Charlie, then Alice is guilty of solicitation. However, if Alice commands Bob to assault Charlie without intending that an actual crime be committed (perhaps believing that Charlie has given consent), then there is no solicitation.
Neglecting the phrase mentioned in the parenthesis, I understood the difference between the two different ideas that were mentioned in the above paragraph. Alice believing that Charlie has given consent actually means that Alice intended for the crime, isn't it?
Also, I understood the dictionary meaning of solicitation. But I didn't understand the word's meaning the marketing statement issued by various financial companies: 'Insurance is a subject of solicitation'.
Please help me understand my above issues.
Any one kindly help me on the above issues.