As I understand it, the Chinese were themselves not aware that their language was tonal until a scholar demonstrated it to an emperor one and a half thousand years ago. Is it true that tones developed, as some suppose, in response to an ancient loss of inflections and, more importantly, final consonants? In any case, although English obviously uses tonal variation among words in a sentence for rhetoric and to distinguish statements, exclamations, and questions, there is no semantic tone distinction at the word level whatsoever. There may yet be, but I just can't see this happening for hundreds of years, at the minimum.
Your example of cheating at cards is frankly unpleasant. English has millions of words as it stands, developed purely with its own devices.
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