"I had assumed that a base salary with profit incentives was okay. I learned from that lawsuit that I could pay salaries only to my managers."
This is so strange....
The boss could only pay salaries to his managers but not other employees?
Is he saying that he could pay salaries "only to" the managers (doesn't have to pay other employees),
or he could pay "salaries only" (without incentives) to his managers,
and other employees still have both the base salary and profit incentives?
(By the way, according to American law, why is that so? )