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  1. #21
    philo2009 is offline Key Member
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    Default Re: Gerund or no gerund after verbs of perception

    Quote Originally Posted by BobK View Post
    OMG! Did I perpetrate that solecism? Of course it's a participle rather than a gerund. When I insist on distinguishing between them I'm regarded as a stuffy Classicist (because of -ans/-andum etc), and I'm afraid I occasionally succumb to the pressure of students who have been brought up with the one-size-fits-all term '-ing form'. Many apologies!

    b
    Just to be crystal clear about this...
    Apologies for confusing participles and gerunds gladly accepted, but none needed for the term -ing form, which is not demonstrably incorrect (after all, it is a form and it manifestly does end in -ing), and while there is no more excuse for referring to a 'gerund-participle' than to an 'adverbjetive' or 'prepojunction', the term "-ing form", while clearly too simplistic for more advanced students, does, I feel, have a place for purposes of introductory English-teaching, where simply establishing the construction in terms of the correct sequence of words is the primary goal and the exploration of finer syntactic subtleties can perhaps wait!

  2. #22
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    BobK is offline Harmless drudge
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    Default Re: Gerund or no gerund after verbs of perception

    Quote Originally Posted by philo2009 View Post
    ... the term "-ing form", while clearly too simplistic for more advanced students, does, I feel, have a place for purposes of introductory English-teaching, where simply establishing the construction in terms of the correct sequence of words is the primary goal and the exploration of finer syntactic subtleties can perhaps wait!
    I guess you're right. I'm getting there, but the phrase still rather sticks in my craw.

    b

  3. #23
    philo2009 is offline Key Member
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    Default Re: Gerund or no gerund after verbs of perception


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