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    #1

    never to be heard from again

    He disappeared on a cold night, never to be heard from again.


    One of my teachers searched the BNC and says 'never to be heard from again' as an adverbial (the result of 'disappeared' ) is not of British English usage. Is that so?

    Could I ask British native speakers to help me please? Thank you in advace.

  1. BobK's Avatar
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    #2

    Re: never to be heard from again

    Quote Originally Posted by joham View Post
    He disappeared on a cold night, never to be heard from again.


    One of my teachers searched the BNC and says 'never to be heard from again' as an adverbial (the result of 'disappeared' ) is not of British English usage. Is that so?

    Could I ask British native speakers to help me please? Thank you in advace.
    It is normal British English usage - if perhaps a little dated. I would use it, but my children might only use it in a mock literary way. The phrase is not the result of "disappeared"; it reinforces it. "He disappeared that night [so finally and utterly that he was] never to be heard from again."

    In your teacher's defence, it's worth pointing out that BNC is not a huge corpus. (It is very useful, but... Any corpus is limited.)

    b

  2. konungursvia's Avatar
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    #3

    Re: never to be heard from again

    I agree with Bob. But we do hear it in AE too.

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    #4

    Re: never to be heard from again

    Hi, BobK and konungursvia, thank you both very much. I'd like to further the question a bit. Could we say 'He disappeared that night, never to be heard from since then'?

    Thank you again.

  3. konungursvia's Avatar
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    #5

    Re: never to be heard from again

    Never again works well, but never since then doesn't.

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