[Grammar] Using a 'name' to replace a 1st person pronoun. Should I treat as 1st or 3rd person?

Status
Not open for further replies.

dienw

New member
Joined
Oct 24, 2014
Member Type
Student or Learner
Native Language
Indonesian
Home Country
Indonesia
Current Location
Indonesia
Dear all,

I do sometimes use 'name' to replace 'I' as the pronoun in my sentence.

I use it mostly in conversation with my kids (I'm trying to communicate in English with them).
For example: "Daddy doesn't like it that much, ..." instead of "I don't like it that much, ...".

But it just feels awkward sometimes, as I, as the 1st person, using 'does' in my sentence.

As a non-native without much interaction with native English-speaking environment, I'm wondering what is the correct way to convey such message as described above.

Thanks in advance,



-dien.
 

tedmc

VIP Member
Joined
Apr 16, 2014
Member Type
Interested in Language
Native Language
Chinese
Home Country
Malaysia
Current Location
Malaysia
Hi Dienw

Welcome to the forum.

I understand the use of one's name to replace a pronoun is common in other languages. It is meant to sound endearing.
As you said, there is no differentiation between the auxillary verbs is/are, do/does, etc. in Asian languages,
which makes it sound rather unnatural in English. ,

I'm wondering what [STRIKE]is[/STRIKE] the correct way is to convey such a message as described above.

not a teacher

.
 

Rover_KE

Moderator
Staff member
Joined
Jun 20, 2010
Member Type
Retired English Teacher
Native Language
British English
Home Country
England
Current Location
England
Welcome to the forum, Dien.

Yes, writing about oneself in the third person is common in English, though readers/listeners find it irritating if overdone.

You are right to change 'I don't' to 'Daddy doesn't'.
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Top