It is no use crying over spilt milk!

It is no use crying over spilt milk!

Why is “It is no use + infinitive” incorrect? i.e. It is no use to cry over spilt milk!

Thanks.

NOT A TEACHER

There are similar threads here:
http://forum.wordreference.com/showthread.php?t=2548137
http://forum.wordreference.com/showthread.php?t=670048
EN: It's no use + V-ing - WordReference Forums
http://www.italki.com/question/62218#

anhnha said:

NOT A TEACHER

There are similar threads here:
It's no use ~ing/to infinitive - WordReference Forums
There is no use talking to him - WordReference Forums
EN: It's no use + V-ing - WordReference Forums
"It is no use to do..." and "It is no use doing..."? - Learn English - italki Answers

Click to expand...

Hi anhnha

I’ve read all the threads. Some people just said “It is no use” should be followed by a gerund. They didn’t explain why “It is no use + infinitive” is incorrect.

Winwin2011 said:

I’ve read all the threads. Some people just said “It is no use” should be followed by a gerund. They didn’t explain why “It is no use + infinitive” is incorrect.

Click to expand...

Some verbs and expressions are followed only by an infinitive, some only by a gerund, some by either with a similar meaning, some by either but with a different meaning. That's just the way the language is.