I don't mind giving learners formal forms if they're common enough. I believe however that "before the white villa" wouldn't be used in modern formal English in the sense we're discussing. I believe that even though your example says otherwise. I don't think SoothingDave is unfamiliar with formal English and I understand he doesn't recognize the form as used there today.
Your example has shaken my confidence in my original statemen. I still think it's mostly or thoroughly true, but I'm not sure anymore. It would be great if other members gave their opinion on this.
birdeen's call, I just hope you don't mind my reminding you of how dictionaries, entries in particular, are positioned in them. Let's take
OALD as an example. Whenever you look up a word, once you've got it you have it as an
entry (or
headword). Words like
before, or
get, or
be may have a lot of
sub-entries (that is different
definitions) explaining the meaning or meanings of the
headword, usually with accompanying examples showing how the
headword is used in context. Different senses are usually separated by numbers or letters and
are arranged according to their frequency of use in the language, with the main or most common meaning given first. It so happens that
before in OALD is listed as second (out of 6) in the sense I wrote about in my very first post in this thread; surprise, surprise - the sense
SoothingDave wrote about is listed as fifth. So I just don't get it how you could write that something is unacceptable, whereas it is, in fact, supported by a reliable source.