He is not like before.

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david11

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Can we use this sentence to mean "He is not like he used to be"?
 

bhaisahab

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david11

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What do you think?

I think yes and the correct form(I think) would be "He is not like he used to be before but my doubt is that Isn't it the word before redundant here? and I heard some people here saying "He is not like before"( They are translating the slang which they say in their mother tongue). I just want to know what native speakers would think about it.
 

bhaisahab

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I think yes and the correct form(I think) would be "He is not like he used to be before but my doubt is that Isn't it the word before redundant here? and I heard some people here saying "He is not like before"( They are translating the slang which they say in their mother tongue). I just want to know what native speakers would think about it.

"before" is redundant after "used to be" unless you are going to add something else, "the accident", for example.
 

david11

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"before" is redundant after "used to be" unless you are going to add something else, "the accident", for example.

What about my original sentence(He is not like before)?
 

5jj

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It's possible.
 
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