He has been ill for 2 days. Why put "been" after has ?
And what is wrong without "been" ?
(He has ill for 2 days.) or (He is ill for 2 days)
I wonder is it possible, if one likes avoiding the PP in such cases, to informally say the sentence this way below.
It is two days now that he is ill.:roll:
(Of course 'be' must be used.)
Although other languages may use different verbs to describe the state of a person having an illness, the English is BE ill.
In your example the state began two days ago, and continued from that time on. It is still true now. This is a classic case for the present perfect - He has been ill for 2 days
If the conversation is informal enough, one can say almost anything, but your suggested utterance strikes me as very unnatural.
Why should one 'like avoiding' the present perfect? It is an essential part of English.
5OK, likes for the third person.Thanks!
Why should one like. Thanks!