Results 1 to 2 of 2
  1. vladz

    none of the ladies

    I have been having this concern since I started teaching English. I often use singular verb for the pronoun "none" but lately my collegues told me that it is not always singular--the veb should agree to the object of the prepostion. I checked my books and the internet and found out that there are conflicting rules in agreement of "none" to the verb. Could you please give me a clearer explanation on the agreement of "none" to the verb.

    I would appreciate any assistance that you could give.

  2. Editor,
    English Teacher
    • Member Info
      • Native Language:
      • British English
      • Home Country:
      • UK
      • Current Location:
      • Laos

    • Join Date: Nov 2002
    • Posts: 63,710

    Re: none of the ladies

    Traditionally, it was followed by a singular, though nowadays I'd say the plural is probably more common. After 'none of' we generally use a plural:

Similar Threads

  1. The origin of the manner of 'Ladies first'
    By Anonymous in forum Ask a Teacher
    Replies: 5
    Last Post: 29-Jul-2009, 03:54
  2. IELTS Spoken exercise
    By dean in forum Ask a Teacher
    Replies: 2
    Last Post: 23-Jan-2004, 02:38


Posting Permissions

  • You may not post new threads
  • You may not post replies
  • You may not post attachments
  • You may not edit your posts