Student or Learner
I would like to know, where the usage of itself and only at the end of sentence is correct or incorrect. And what are the reasons for it?
I am from France itself.
I am going to the market for this only.
I am from india itself.
This is incorrect, beacuse "itself" is a reflexive pronoun and has to point back/reflect back to subject, over here I is the subject and itself does not reflect back to it.
Correct me if i am wrong...Thanks
- I am from France itself.
- I am from India itself.
Above, reflexive itself modifies the nouns France and India. Change the pronoun to myself and it would modify the subject I.
Now, as to whetherusing itself is in that way, to modify a country, is "correct", that's debatable. While both of the example sentences make sense, the use of itself isn't generally used in that way in North American English. Let's wait to see what the Brits, Indians, and Aussies have to say.
- I am going to the market for this only
it's another way of saying only this, just this one thing.
What I would like to know is what that reflexive pronoun adds to the meaning of the sentence? I do think it is extremely redundant.
My question is, how is the pronoun in bowel itself and Indian itself different from an intensive pronoun; e.g., It, itself, did it? Or are they one and the same? Are they all intensive pronouns?
Also, from another site:
'The boy saw HIMSELF in the mirror.' ... REFLEXIVE pronoun
'I know the boy HIMSELF.' ... EMPHATIC pronoun
Sorry, our posts seem to have crossed. I think we are trying to make the same point.
Still, in the sentence with the itself following the country India, the pronoun sounds and looks odd. The following are typical examples of the emphatic pronoun:
With all the surrounding countries taking new shape, India itself is now a different place in the region.
There are now over half a million users of Tata cars in India itself/alone.