I have some questions concerning the passage below:
The African kingly states of the sub-Saharan region formed partly in
response to overland or sea trade with, or invasion from North
Africa, the Mediterranean, or Arabia. Not only did dominant males
come to power through the stimulus of invasion and warfare, but
the philosophies of the foreign groups dictated, more or less, the
subordination of women and children. In more recent times, the
Arab and European slave trade exacerbated these tendencies by
stimulating tribal/ethnic groups.
1. I understand that "kingly states" are the African states where the kings rule?
2. Does it say something like: Not only men who dominated (in the tribes probably) came to power (because war and invasion stimulated them to do this), but also, to some extent, the philosophies of the foreign groups told them to subordinate women and children???
3. As for the last sentence it's pretty unclear to me. I only understand that some time later the slave trade exacerbated these tendencies (I assume that the author is talking about the tendencies of male domination and subordination of women and children), but I don't get the part "by stimulating tribal/ethnic groups"? What does it refer to? Maybe it would be most helpful to paraphrase that whole last sentence???