Results 1 to 3 of 3
  1. #1
    najm is offline Newbie
    Join Date
    Aug 2009
    Posts
    1

    why is "have" different from "make"

    why isn't the rule of long vowel applied when pronouncing "have" and applied in the word "make"

  2. #2
    Soup's Avatar
    Soup is offline VIP Member
    • Member Info
      • Member Type:
      • English Teacher
      • Native Language:
      • English
      • Home Country:
      • Canada
      • Current Location:
      • China
    Join Date
    Sep 2007
    Posts
    5,853

    Re: why is "have" different from "make"

    Quote Originally Posted by najm View Post
    why isn't the rule of long vowel applied when pronouncing "have" and applied in the word "make"
    The -e on have is the result of a spelling convention: Norman scribes added -e to a word if it ended in [v] (e.g., have, give) to differentiate the sound [v] from the sound [u], because at that time the letters <u> and <v> were used interchangeably to spell both the vowel [u] and the consonant [v].

    Read more here.

  3. #3
    bhaisahab's Avatar
    bhaisahab is offline Moderator
    • Member Info
      • Member Type:
      • Retired English Teacher
      • Native Language:
      • British English
      • Home Country:
      • England
      • Current Location:
      • Ireland
    Join Date
    Apr 2008
    Posts
    25,698

    Re: why is "have" different from "make"

    Quote Originally Posted by Soup View Post
    The -e on have is the result of a spelling convention: Norman scribes added -e to a word if it ended in [v] (e.g., have, give) to differentiate the sound [v] from the sound [u], because at that time the letters <u> and <v> were used interchangeably to spell both the vowel [u] and the consonant [v].

    Read more here.
    Interesting link Soup, thanks.

Posting Permissions

  • You may not post new threads
  • You may not post replies
  • You may not post attachments
  • You may not edit your posts
  •