(Not a teacher)Hello!
Below is an excerpt from a textbook.
The British people are, therefore, great readers of news papers. There are few homes to which one newspaper is not delivered every morning. Many households have two, or even three, newspapers every morning. One newspaper may be delivered at the house, a member of the family may buy one at the station bookstall to read in the train as he goes to town, and someone else in the family may buy an evening newspaper later in the day.
Daily papers are those that are published daily from Monday to Saturday. There are the morning papers and the evening papers( of those daily papers which are published daily from Monday to Saturday - anaphoric reference).
The morning papers are on sale early in the morning.
( from Newspapers in Great Britain, Hornby, OUP)
In the Section 2 “There are the morning papers and the evening papers.”, why are the expressions “morning papers” and “evening papers” introduced with the definite article on each of them?
Does the sentence “There are morning papers and evening papers.” have a different meaning and is it inadequate in this context?
I suppose the original sentence conveys the ideas of “our, nearness, etc” through the use of the article and the sentence without the article does not necessarily refer to the papers in Great Britain.
Please explain on the matter.