it's not in the article.
i'm studying Andrew Raford's transformatinal grammar.
we need to analyze the ambiguity meanings in the NP
just like
a toy factory
*****NOT A TEACHER *****
Good morning, keitin.
(1) Congratulations on studying transformational grammar. It is too difficult for me to understand.
(2) I just thought that you would like to know something that I read in A GRAMMAR OF THE ENGLISH LANGUAGE, by Dr. George O. Curme, written in "the old days" (1931):
(a) Today we say: the King of England's property.
(b) Until the year 1500, we said: The king's property of England.
(c) Professor Curme explains that the English people decided to stop this because when people spoke, people would think you were saying: The kings (plural) of England property.
(d) Therefore, the people decided to treat "king of England" as a unit/group.
(i) So today we say: The king of England's property. (We are talking about one king.)
(ii) As Dr. Curme says, we now keep the plural for a sentence such as:
The kings of England now have less power than formerly.
Thanks for the great question.