I believe it's normal to say:
I've been reading this book for 2 weeks.
(2 weeks ago I started to read it and I'm still reading it - of course with breaks, so let's say 2 hours per day.) Yes.
If it's the opposite, would it make sense to say:
I haven't been reading this book for 2 weeks.
(2 weeks ago I decided not to read it anymore, and I haven't changed my decision yet.)
I haven't read this book for two weeks.
I don't know, something seems weird but I can't figure it out...
What is weird is that your sentence is normally used in this context: A: You should have finished that book by now. You've been reading it for two weeks.
B: I haven't been reading it for two weeks. I only started it last weekend. [And I'm still reading it.]
There are potential ambiguities if the context doesn't make it clear.
"I haven't been swimming for two weeks" could mean either: 1) "It has been two weeks since I went swimming." or 2) "I have been swimming for less than two weeks."
Naturally, with "swimming", the meaning is more likely to be 1, because no one would assume that you have been swimming for two weeks.
But, the following is ambiguous without further context: "I haven't been working for two weeks."
Here is a conversation where the meaning is as in 2. A: Here's your pay. You get paid after every two weeks' work.
B: But I haven't been working for two weeks.
Yes fellows, you're totally right. Naturally, we're tempted to use the simple present tense, because wohne represents that tense.
The tense will not work out in the English equivalent of the sentence:
-Since I live here, I feel good ( psychological state)/ well (physical state).
1. The sentence is ambiguous: since will be wrongly taken to mean because in the sentence.
2. We expect to see present perfect after since.
As a result, German learners need to be more careful when they deal with progressive tenses. The language employs adverbials rather than syntactic structures to cover the concept of progression.