Good afternoon, Jasmin.
(1) Raymond Murphy's Grammar In Use gives this example:
I don't think Tom will get the job.
Tom HIMSELF doesn't think he'll get the job.
Tom doesn't think he'll get the job HIMSELF.
Wilma and David Ebbitt's Index to English gives this example:
When they serve as intensives, the reflexive forms are construed as pronouns in apposition:
The owner HIMSELF sold the car.
The owner sold the car HIMSELF.
Bruce L. Liles's A Basic Grammar of Modern English gives this example:
William HIMSELF opened the safe.
OR William opened the safe HIMSELF.
It seems that "myself" in your sentence could take either position.
Mesdames Celce-Murcia and Larsen-Freeman's The Grammar Book says:
Only reflexives that directly follow the noun they are modifying can TRULY
(my emphasis) be considered emphatic uses of the reflexive pronouns.
Why do they say that? Here are their examples:
The owner HIMSELF built the house. = He took deliberate action to have the house built.
The owner built the house HIMSELF. = He did all the work alone. That is. the owner built the house by himself.
(1) Most native speakers would probably use either position.
(2) In your sentence, there can be no confusion. "Myself" is intensive. It
could not possibly be interpreted as she did something BY herself.
(3) If you always want to be 100% "safe," follow the two ladies' advice:
Take comfort in the fact that I MYSELF am not overly coveted on the job market.
Have a nice day!
Student or Learner