I have 2 questions today.
1. is it ok to use absolute to replace exclusive in this sentence as i have paraphrased it ' Exclusive use of Maltese is associated with linguistic purism".
-Absolute can convey that sense, but in the sentence, the focus is on the exclusiveness of the language. That is, Maltese must be the only language that the speakers are allowed to speak.
And the purism gives me a bit hard understanding.
Governments employ different strategies to consolidate their system.
Using a particular, usually a native, language exclusively and trying to eradicate other existing languages in a definite geographical area can be referred to as language purism.
2. "The finding is 10-100% of uses of English. " or " The finding is of 10-100% uses of English." Which is correct??
I'm not sure if I understand what the sentences mean, but let's try this:
-The finding includes 10-100% of English usages/ uses.