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Thread: until/up to

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    until/up to

    1-The article is about practices that existed until 200 AD.
    2-The article is about practices that existed up to 200 AD.

    Did all the practices in question still exist in 200 AD or could some of them have disappeared before that date?

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    Retired English Teacher
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    Re: until/up to

    It is reasonable to suppose that some of the practices would have ceased before that date.

    Whatever 'the practices' were, it is unlikely that they would all have ceased in one particular year.


    • Join Date: Jun 2010
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    Re: until/up to

    The practices still existed in AD 200, but no longer existed in AD 201. It's not clear from the sentences whether the practices all stopped at the same time or not.

    Like Rover_KE says, many cultural things slowly stop over a period of time. On the other hand, for example, it's possible that every person who used to do these practices was killed in a fire on the same day - maybe they were all at a meeting together and the building burned down - in which case, it is possible that all of the practices still existed at the beginning of AD 200, but no longer existed in AD 201.


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