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    #1

    Which one is correct ?


    Hullo!
    Which one is correct ?
    1-We had two weeks' holiday .
    2-We had two week's holiday .
    3-We had two a two weeks' holiday
    4-We had two weeks holiday .
    Thanks


  1. calypsovoice's Avatar

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    #2

    Re: Which one is correct ?

    We had a two-week holiday.
    We had two week's holiday.

    I'm not a teacher, but it was on this forum before, so I'm sure it's correct.

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    #3

    Re: Which one is correct ?

    Quote Originally Posted by Sir Shakespeare View Post
    Hullo!
    Which one is correct ?
    1-We had two weeks' holiday .
    2-We had two week's holiday .
    3-We had two a two weeks' holiday
    4-We had two weeks holiday .
    Thanks
    ********** NOT a teacher **********

    Hello, Sir Shakespeare.

    (1) I believe that two "correct" answers would be:

    We had a two weeks' holiday. =

    We had a holiday of two weeks.

    (2) We had a two-week holiday. (no "weeks")

    Similar to: We have a five-year-old daughter.

    ((no "years")

    THANK YOU

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    #4

    Re: Which one is correct ?


    Well , thanks!
    With regard to this :

    We had two week's holiday.


    Methinks, It's still ambiguous because according to The parser , it should be like this :

    We had a two weeks' holiday.


    Yet , I am still confused! I've just skimmed my Oxford Learner's Pocket Grammar and I've found this example :

    James has got three weeks' holiday . (( without a ))

    The parser

    Thanks for your minute explanation

    We had a holiday of two weeks.


    Good way of expressing the same idea!

    We had a two-week holiday. (no "weeks")


    Great! Thank you

    GREETINGS

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    #5

    Re: Which one is correct ?

    Quote Originally Posted by Sir Shakespeare View Post


    Well , thanks!
    With regard to this :



    Methinks, It's still ambiguous because according to The parser , it should be like this :



    Yet , I am still confused! I've just skimmed my Oxford Learner's Pocket Grammar and I've found this example :

    James has got three weeks' holiday . (( without a ))

    The parser

    Thanks for your minute explanation



    Good way of expressing the same idea!



    Great! Thank you

    GREETINGS

    ********** NOT a teacher **********

    Hello, Sir Shakespeare.

    (1) You have asked an excellent question.

    (2) I think that there is a difference between:

    (a) We had a two weeks' vacation. (By the way, I think that

    most native speakers are more comfortable with We had a two-

    week vacation.)

    (b) James has got three weeks' holiday.

    (3) I do not feel qualified to explain the difference -- if any.

    (4) If someone else does not answer your question, please post that

    particular question again, and then probably someone will answer

    your new thread.

    THANK YOU

  2. emsr2d2's Avatar
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    #6

    Re: Which one is correct ?

    Quote Originally Posted by Sir Shakespeare View Post

    Hullo!
    Which one is correct ?
    1-We had two weeks' holiday. Correct.
    2-We had two week's holiday. Incorrect. "Two weeks" is plural, so the apostrophe goes after the "s".
    3-We had two a two weeks' holiday. Incorrect. We had a two-week holiday.
    4-We had two weeks holiday. Incorrect. Apostrophe needed, as in Sentence 1.

    Thanks

    When you're talking about a holiday as in a period of time you have spent away from home (vacation in AmE), then you would say "I had a two-week holiday". This means that you had one holiday and it lasted two weeks.

    In BrE, if you're talking about holiday entitlement (the number of days that you are allowed to take off work), then you would say "At my old job, I got/had two weeks' holiday". "In my current job, I have three weeks' holiday, but in my previous job I had four weeks' holiday".

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    #7

    Re: Which one is correct ?

    Quote Originally Posted by Sir Shakespeare View Post


    Well , thanks!
    With regard to this :



    Methinks, It's still ambiguous because according to The parser , it should be like this :



    Yet , I am still confused! I've just skimmed my Oxford Learner's Pocket Grammar and I've found this example :

    James has got three weeks' holiday . (( without a ))

    The parser

    Thanks for your minute explanation



    Good way of expressing the same idea!



    Great! Thank you

    GREETINGS

    ********** NOT a teacher **********

    Hello, Sir Shakespeare.

    (1) Because of Teacher EMSR, you and I now understand the

    difference between those two sentences -- one with a, and one

    without it.

    (2) I think that you would like to know something I discovered.

    The British prefer to say:

    James has got three weeks' holiday.

    Americans prefer to say:

    James has three weeks' vacation.

    THANK YOU

  3. emsr2d2's Avatar
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    #8

    Re: Which one is correct ?

    Quote Originally Posted by TheParser View Post
    ********** NOT a teacher **********

    Hello, Sir Shakespeare.

    (1) Because of Teacher EMSR, you and I now understand the

    difference between those two sentences -- one with a, and one

    without it.

    (2) I think that you would like to know something I discovered.

    The British prefer to say:

    James has got three weeks' holiday.

    Americans prefer to say:

    James has three weeks' vacation.

    THANK YOU
    I agree about the difference between holiday and vacation, but not necessarily the use of "has got" vs "has". Whilst it's true that "to have got" is used in BrE and not, I believe, in AmE, I wouldn't say that we are more likely to say "has got" than "has" in this context.

    However (!), in BrE, I would expect the following exchange:

    How many days' holiday do you get?
    I get 25 days' holiday.

    Here, "get" means "receive" or "to be entitled to".

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    #9

    Re: Which one is correct ?

    Quote Originally Posted by emsr2d2 View Post
    I agree about the difference between holiday and vacation, but not necessarily the use of "has got" vs "has". Whilst it's true that "to have got" is used in BrE and not, I believe, in AmE, I wouldn't say that we are more likely to say "has got" than "has" in this context.

    However (!), in BrE, I would expect the following exchange:

    How many days' holiday do you get?
    I get 25 days' holiday.

    Here, "get" means "receive" or "to be entitled to".
    ********** NOT a teacher **********

    Hello, Teacher EMSR.

    (1) Thank you for the clarification.

    (2) While I was googling, I came across this example from Mr. Raymond

    Murphy's popular grammar:

    Julia has got three weeks' holiday.

    (a) That sounded strange to my ears, so I consulted my copy of

    his American edition and read:

    I have three weeks' vacation.

    (3) Maybe we could say that most British people prefer have got, and

    most Americans prefer have in those examples.

    THANK YOU

  4. bhaisahab's Avatar
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    #10

    Re: Which one is correct ?

    Quote Originally Posted by TheParser View Post
    ********** NOT a teacher **********

    Hello, Teacher EMSR.

    (1) Thank you for the clarification.

    (2) While I was googling, I came across this example from Mr. Raymond

    Murphy's popular grammar:

    Julia has got three weeks' holiday.

    (a) That sounded strange to my ears, so I consulted my copy of

    his American edition and read:

    I have three weeks' vacation.

    (3) Maybe we could say that most British people prefer have got, and

    most Americans prefer have in those examples.

    THANK YOU
    I would say "Julia has three weeks holiday a year" NOT "Julia has got three weeks holiday a year.

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